Headline, October 3, 2015: “US alleges suburb discriminated against Muslim group”. Is it possible that Muslims are simply not entitled to First Amendment protections against religious expression? Could any group of “believers”, no matter how large or dominant, whose fundamentals include the extra judicial murder of nonbelievers and apostates, the subjugation of women and girls, and a universal refusal to assimilate, could such a group be considered a legitimate religion? And could any community be required to house such a group against their will?